Another proper course question
Your argument at first seems to make sense but then I ask myself why rule 17 exists? If you arguement is valid than it is always true that a boat establishing a leeward overlap from astern is travelling its proper course. Why then the rule and who says which skipper determines what the leeward boat''s proper course is?
I would think that would mostly be up to the judges.
Rule 17 stinks. Far too subjective and open to a wide interpretation. basically sets up situations where leeward boat has been given ramming rights.