Quote:
Originally Posted by erps
Can a constitutional amendment be unconstitutional, like if it conflicts with another amendment?
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Erps... first...lets deal with California. They have their own constitution which varies quite a bit from the one we have here in North Carolina. Under their rules...a simple majority of the people can change THAT constitution.
Under the US constitution and its' amendments...certain rights and rules apply to ALL citizens and states and any provision of a state constitution or any state law that is in conflict with a provision of the US constitution can be declared null and void by the US Supreme Court.
Fortunately, the Supreme court has not yet found the part of the US constitution that confers the right of homosexual marriage (though if Mr. Obama is elected we may get justices capable of so doing)...and so the California constitution prevails in this instance. And yes...one amendment can supercede and render void and earlier amendment...just as in the US Constitution with the prohibition amendments.
The US constitution if you back out the bill of rights and the prohibition hiccup...has only been amended 15 times in over 200 years...and mostly for political reasons rather than on human rights issues. It is extremely difficult to do and requires an overwhelming majority (2/3) of both houses of congress AND 3/4 of the states to agree. Thus...we see the court conferring more constitutional "rights" than the people. 9 people speak with a typically divided voice and overrule the will of the great majority time and time again. That is excellent in terms of preventing the tyranny of the majority. But the extreme difficulty in passing amendments also allows for the tyranny of the minority!